Thank you.
Mr. Murphy, I want to go over a bit of ground again with you.
Basically, somebody makes a deal to buy a condo. The title isn't ready to be transferred, but the condo is ready to be moved into. They move in on the basis that they're going to pay a rent equivalent to an interest rate, which is set in the manner you described earlier. This may be higher than they could get on an actual mortgage at a bank. They're paying this higher rent and not getting the advantage of principal reduction in the interim period.
Do I have that right?